November 16, 2026 (Monday), has been declared a public holiday across Delhi for all government offices, autonomous bodies, and Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) on the occasion of Pratihar Shashthi or Surya Shashthi (Chhath Puja).

In a major strike against the cross-border smuggling of foreign currency, the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI), intercepted several passengers going abroad at Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose International (NSCBI) Airport, Kolkata, who were attempting to carry foreign currency out of the country.
Acting on specific intelligence, DRI officers intercepted 7 passengers in the early hours of 06.11.2026 on their journey to Bangkok. A thorough personal search of the passengers, including their hand baggage and checked-in baggage, led to the recovery and seizure of assorted foreign currency in USD, GBP collectively valued at valued at Rs. 3.12 crore.
The syndicate carriers used a sophisticated modus operandi and the currency was ingeniously concealed inside notebooks, in two-layered hidden compartments in trolley bags and in shoes. Some of it was hidden in the pockets of clothes packed in checked-in baggage, and in other cases deep inside both checked-in and hand baggage. On enquiry, the passengers could not produce any documents to establish ownership or lawful possession of the currency.
In total 7 members of the syndicate were arrested and charged with smuggling out the foreign currency in contravention of Customs Act read with FEMA Regulations.
In addition, few other passengers were also intercepted and search of their baggage led to recovery of foreign currency equivalent to Rs. 0.39 crore. The passengers were handed to Customs formation for further proceedings.
DRI remains determined to dismantle organised networks that facilitate the illicit outflow of foreign currency and undermine the country’s economic and fiscal stability. Through sustained, intelligence-led enforcement, DRI continues to safeguard India’s economic frontiers.
It is hereby informed that, in view of the substantial volume of E-Way Bills generated, the existing numbering capacity is expected to be exhausted. Accordingly, the following revisions in the numbering formats are proposed with effect from 1 January 2027
| Document Type | Existing Format | Proposed Format |
|---|---|---|
| E-Way Bill Number | 12 digits | 14 digits |
| Consolidated E-Way Bill Number | 10 digits | 11 digits |
All stakeholders, including taxpayers, GSPs, ERP/software providers and API integrators, are advised to make necessary modifications to their applications, APIs, database schemas and validation rules to accommodate the revised numbering formats.
The changes will be released in the Sandbox environment shortly for testing, and the relevant details will be published on the E-Way Bill Portal. Stakeholders are requested to ensure system readiness well before 1 January 2027 to facilitate a seamless transition and avoid any disruption to E-Way Bill-related operations.
CA. Mangesh Kinare, Vice President, ICAI, met Shri Devendra Fadnavis, Hon’ble Chief Minister of Maharashtra, to discuss matters concerning ICAI’s activities, especially in Maharashtra and ICAI’s contribution to Maharashtra’s overall progress.
Many are knocking on the doors of tax authorities to cut through the confusion over a list of ambiguities in the mini-amnesty scheme for undisclosed foreign assets and income.
Will a taxpayer who is merely a signing authority for a foreign bank account but doesn’t own the funds get caught in the tax net after declaring as a signatory? How to segregate gifts and inheritances from other foreign assets which were acquired? Or, what if a foreign bank no longer has the statements of accounts which were opened years ago?
Questions like these and more are cropping up as the December 31 deadline nears for the Foreign Assets of Small Taxpayers-Disclosure Scheme, 2026 (FAST-DS), a one-time compliance initiative.The voluntary disclosure window, which opened on August 16, allows a person to regularise undeclared overseas stocks, properties, ESOPs, and earnings up to ₹1 crore without declaring sources of funds by paying a combined tax and penalty of 60%. Foreign assets up to ₹5 cr acquired with reported earnings can be legitimised with a ₹1 lakh fine.Despite the tax office responding to FAQs, taxpayers and professionals want the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) to clarify several unaddressed issues.
For instance, how to avoid tax and penalties on the quantum of bank deposits accumulated from the overseas earnings of a declarant when he was an NRI? Since NRIs’ foreign earnings aren’t taxed in India, deposits created from that income should not be taxed and penalised.Those who missed out on reporting, either due to ignorance or wrong advice, are anxious for answers. A declaration, once accepted, cannot be changed; the amount paid will not be refunded, and false information will invalidate the declaration. After December 31, persons who don’t declare under FAST-DS may face a higher financial burden if faced with proceedings under Black Money Act.
While a trust beneficiary or foreign account signatory has to report these facts under the ‘Foreign Assets’ (FA) Schedule in the I-T Return (ITR), it’s felt the same should not be extended to the scheme.
It’s suggested that the Board (or CBDT) confirm that an account over which the taxpayer holds only signing authority, with no financial interest, is not an undisclosed foreign asset for the purpose of the scheme, said a member of The Chamber of Tax Consultants, which is among the bodies to reach out to CBDT.Similarly, a beneficiary of a foreign trust has to report the information in the ITR. But some fear that disclosure under FAST-DS could bring them under the taxman’s lens even if the beneficiary owns no trust asset or hasn’t received funds from the trust.
“In cases where undisclosed foreign income is credited to a foreign bank account, it’s unclear whether the income or bank balance (asset) must be disclosed. An FAQ under the 2015 Scheme suggested that the asset has to be disclosed. FAST-DS doesn’t provide similar clarity. This is important as valuation of income and asset may differ. Another issue concerns foreign income on which Indian taxes have been paid but wasn’t disclosed in Schedule FA,” said Harshal Bhuta, co-founder and country co-head, international tax and FEMA, at Ascentium India.
Also, in cases where tax payer holds a foreign account jointly with a spouse and has contributed a part of the funds, there’s no mechanism for apportionment between joint holders.
An area of concern, says chartered accountant Ashish Karundia, relates to employees who inadvertently failed to report ESOPs in Schedule FA and subsequently didn’t offer dividend income to tax, despite having paid tax on shares as salary perquisites. “Such employees could face disproportionate and multiple layers of tax and compliance costs: withholding tax on dividends in overseas jurisdiction, a 60% levy in India for non-disclosure of dividend and a further ₹1 lakh for disclosure of underlying shares, irrespective of their value,” said Karundia.
Under the scheme, the fair market value of every asset is determined as on March 31, 2026, a clause that dampened enthusiasm for the scheme, thanks to the rupee’s slide against the dollar.
“Most are put off by the ₹1 crore limit, which today is a minuscule number. In the 2015 scheme, there was no limit. Many who are ready to pay and declare could not participate as the respective amounts breached ₹1 crore as per March 2026 value. Such a scheme should have higher limits of ₹100-200 crore to draw wider interest,” said Rajesh Shah, partner at Jayantilal Thakkar, a Mumbai-based CA firm.
| Instrument / Situation | Holding Period | Tax Treatment | Tax Rate |
| Physical Gold Physical Gold | Sold within 24 months | STCG | As per your Income Tax Slab |
| Sold after 24 months | LTCG | 12.5% without indexation | |
| ETFs ETFs | Sold within 12 months | STCG | As per your Income Tax Slab |
| Sold after 12 months | LTCG | 12.50% | |
| Digital Gold & Mutual Funds Digital Gold & Mutual Funds | Sold within 24 months | STCG | As per your Income Tax Slab |
| Sold after 24 months | LTCG | 12.5% without indexation | |
| Gift From Specified Relatives** | N/A | Tax Free | Nil |
| Gift From Non-Relatives** | N/A | Gift Tax | Taxable as per Slab if > ₹50,000 |
| Sovereign Gold Bonds – Interest | N/A | Interest Income | As per your Income Tax Slab |
| SGB – Redeemed After Maturity | 8 Years | Capital Gains | Fully Exempt* |
| SGB – Redeemed Before Maturity SGB – Redeemed Before Maturity | Sold within 12 months | STCG | As per your Income Tax Slab |
| Sold after 12 months | LTCG | 12.50% |
**Capital gains tax applies only when gold is sold.
*SGB tax exemption applies only if bought in the original issue and held till maturity.
₹1.25 lakh LTCG exemption applies only to equity, not gold or silver. Gold LTCG is taxed at 12.5% without indexation. SGB gains are tax-free only if held till 8-year maturity. 3% GST applies only to physical gold purchases.
Mr Ram from Mandi Road got entangled in a dispute with the Income Tax Department after he bought a property, deposited a large amount of cash in his bank account but did not file any income tax return. However, the Income Tax Assessing Officer (AO) from Jaipur already had information from his sources that Ram had purchased a property for Rs 20.23 lakh and deposited Rs 13.04 lakh cash in his bank account. This is why the AO sent him an income tax notice asking to file ITR.
In response to the income tax notice, Mr Ram declared Rs 2.14 lakh income and filed the ITR. When the AO saw Ram’s ITR he classified the case as suspicious and eventually declared the property investment and cash deposit both as unexplained and started the proceedings against Ram. To reiterate, Ram was charged with evading tax on Rs 20.23 lakh unexplained property investment and Rs 13.04 lakh unexplained cash deposit.
Feeling aggrieved, Ram filed an appeal with the commissioner of appeals (CIT A). The CIT (A) decided to give Ram part relief by deleting the tax notice for Rs 20.33 lakh unexplained property but sustained the Rs 13.04 lakh unexplained cash tax notice. So Ram filed another appeal with ITAT Jaipur for the unexplained cash issue. On October 6, 2026 Ram won this case and now both the unexplained cash (ITAT Jaipur) and unexplained property (CIT A) tax notice was cancelled.
Chartered Accountant Varun Singhal said to ET Wealth Online that Ram won the case because he produced a notarised gift deed, with two witnesses, showing his mother gave him Rs 16 lakh on February 2, 2012 and this money was deposited by him in his bank account. Deposits in his bank account followed in February-March 2012. The mother’s money came from selling her old gold jewellery, which a registered valuer had valued at Rs 18.36 lakh as on March 31, 2011. The ITAT Jaipur also noted that a mother is a relative under Section 2(41) of the Income Tax law and gift from relatives are not taxed.
According to Singhal, you should take the following precautions:
Chartered Accountant Nikhilesh Kataria representing Ram argued before ITAT Delhi that Ram’s mother sold her old jewellery (valued at Rs 18.36 lakh by a registered valuer in 2011) and gave Rs 16 lakh cash to Ram on February 3, 2012. However, the AO disbelieved this story as there were no supporting documents specifying the specifications of the gold items. CA Nikhilesh Kataria also argued that it is customary in the jewellery trade that when selling old jewellery only total weight shown and no separate specification of items are given in the invoice.
The other contention of the AO is that the weight of jewellery sold is much less than the total weight of gold mentioned in the valuation report. To this contention, CA Nikhilesh Kataria replied that Ram’s mother only sold 642.300 grams for Rs 16.1 lakh and gifted Rs 16 lakh to Ram. Moreover, CA Nikhilesh Kataria supported his argument with evidence namely Ram’s mother’s duly notarised gift deed which also has witnesses.
Mrs. Arti Rawat, ACIT appearing for the Income Tax Department supported the orders passed by the lower authorities and requested to confirm the addition of the unexplained incomes to Ram’s ITR.
ITAT Jaipur heard the arguments and said that the Gift Deed clearly mentions that the Gift given to Ram on February 4, 2012 and on this basis Ram deposited the said cash in his bank account.
ITAT Jaipur ruled: “This gift is from the mother only which is within the relatives as defined in Section 2(41). Further the assesee’s (Ram) mother in her old age gifted part of the amount from sale of her gold jewellery given as gift to the assessee, which cannot be doubted, since the same is supported by valid notarised Gift Deed with two witnesses and value of the jewels were determined by Registered Valuer. Thus the addition made by the AO is liable to be deleted.”
Vide Notification No. 05/2026-Central Tax Dated:26.10.2026, Rule 21 of Central Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017, the provisions relating to amendment of registration under Rule 19 of the CGST Rules, 2017 have been substituted. The corresponding changes have been implemented on the GST portal.
1. Amendment of Principal Place of Business
2. Amendment of other registration particulars
CBIC has released a 93-page consultation paper proposing an alternate mechanism for liability amendments and ITC adjustments.
Key proposals include:
🔹 GSTR-1/1A Improvements: Better classification of sales and supplies to ensure correct details are automatically reflected in GSTR-3B.
🔹 More Flexibility in GSTR-1A: Businesses can correct details of earlier periods and fix incorrect recipient GSTINs before filing GSTR-3B.
🔹 No Direct Changes to Tax Liability in GSTR-3B: Any mistakes in sales details must be corrected through GSTR-1 or GSTR-1A.
🔹 DRC-03 Invoice Linking: Linking tax payments with specific invoices to avoid paying tax twice and help buyers claim eligible ITC.
🔹 Separate RCM Statement (PMT-02B): A separate record to track tax paid under RCM and the ITC claimed against it.
🔹 ITC Reversal and Reclaim Statement (PMT-02A): ITC can be reclaimed only to the extent allowed, with a separate section in GSTR-3B for reporting these details.
🔹 PMT-10 for Excess ITC Reversal: A facility to correct cases where more ITC was permanently reversed than required in earlier periods.
🔹 Improved ISD Reporting: Clearer reporting of ineligible ITC without unnecessarily reducing the eligible ITC available to businesses.
🔹 Improved GSTR-2B: More accurate ITC details to make checking and matching purchase records easier.
🔹 Easier Discrepancy Reporting: PMT-04 can now also be used to report differences or errors in the new ITC statements.
Have suggestions? Now is the time to share them.
📅 Deadline: 30 November 2026.
📍 Submit your feedback at
https://innovateindia.mygov.in/ministry/ministry-of-finance/
Important Announcement: ICAI CA Foundation Examination Results (September 2026)
The results of the Chartered Accountants Foundation Examination held in September 2026 is likely to be declared by the evening of 6th November 2026 and the same can be accessed by candidates on the website caresults.icai.org
It may be noted that for accessing the result at the above mentioned website, the candidate shall have to enter his/her Registration Number along with his/her Roll Number.
(Anand Kumar Chaturvedi) Additional Secretary (Exams)
Advisory – Scheduled Maintenance of e-Invoice Services (31 October – 1 November 2026)
Dear Taxpayers,
Due to a scheduled infrastructure upgrade, certain e-Invoice-related services on the GST portal (https://einvoice.gst.gov.in) would remain temporarily unavailable during the following period:
Start: 31 October 2026, 9:00 AM (IST)
End: 1 November 2026, 1:00 PM (IST)
Affected services:
1. e-Invoice data retrieval and processing from IRPs.
2. Auto-population of e-Invoice data in GSTR-1.
3. e-Invoice JSON downloads through the portal and APIs.
Taxpayers and other stakeholders are advised to plan their activities accordingly. The affected services are expected to resume after completion of the maintenance.
The inconvenience caused is regretted.Thanks,
Team GSTN
CBIC has notified new categories of supplies for the purpose of e invoicing, making e invoicing mandatory for the following transactions w.e.f. 1st January 2027:
a. supply of goods or services or both received from an unregistered person where the tax is payable on RCM basis.
b. import of services
Another compliance burden for GST taxpayers
CBIC issue Circular for #GST Council Meeting Proposal implemention
Circular 257 to 264

GST Registration reforms that professionals have been waiting for!
Thank you, @cbic_india, for Circular No. 257/03/2026-GST.
A welcome step towards a more transparent, predictable and taxpayer-friendly GST registration process.
Hope these guidelines translate into better ground-level implementation!



Bombay High Court has ruled that the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) cannot reject eligible private sector employees’ applications for higher pension under the Employees’ Pension Scheme (EPS), 1995, solely because their employer’s provident fund (PF) trust rules restrict contributions to the statutory wage ceiling.
According to a report by Livemint, the October 19 judgment, delivered by Justice Sandeep V. Marne, set aside EPFO orders rejecting applications from more than 40 employees of establishments including Abbott India, Tata Communications, Raymond Steel and BEST Undertaking. The court directed EPFO to process and allow the employees’ joint-option applications within eight weeks.
Why did EPFO reject the applications?
Some employers operate their own PF trusts because their establishments are exempted from the standard EPF arrangement. EPFO had rejected certain higher-pension applications on the grounds that these trusts’ internal rules capped contributions at the statutory wage ceiling or did not expressly permit employees to exercise the joint option for a higher pension.
The employees challenged the rejections, arguing that the rules governing their employers’ PF trusts could not override their entitlement under the EPS, 1995.
The joint option allows eligible employees and employers to seek a pension calculated on higher wages, subject to the scheme’s conditions. Employees who contributed to the PF on actual salaries exceeding the applicable wage ceiling may qualify for the higher-pension benefit, provided they meet the prescribed requirements.
What did the Bombay High Court say?
The court held that an employer’s PF trust rules could not, by themselves, be used to deny an otherwise eligible employee the opportunity to seek a higher pension.
According to Livemint, the court observed that PF trust rules generally govern provident fund contributions and do not determine an employee’s entitlement to a pension on higher wages under the EPS.
The judgment stated: “A joint option cannot be rejected on the ground that the Trust Rules either envisage a cap /ceiling or employer’s contribution or that Trust Rules did not provide for joint option on higher pension on the ground that employer did not remit pension contribution on the wages exceeding the ceiling.”
The court also considered the Supreme Court’s judgment in EPFO v. Sunil Kumar B., which upheld the 2014 EPS amendments. The Supreme Court had held that eligible employees who contributed to the PF on actual wages exceeding the statutory ceiling could not be barred from exercising the higher-pension option solely on that basis, subject to the scheme’s conditions.
The Bombay High Court further addressed situations in which employers could not produce historical records. It noted that alternative verification methods, including providing employees an opportunity to be heard, should be considered where relevant records were unavailable.
What happens next for the employees?
The High Court set aside the EPFO orders rejecting the applications and directed the authorities to process and allow the petitioners’ joint options within eight weeks. The petitions were allowed, with no order as to costs.
Does this mean all EPFO members qualify for a higher pension?
No. The ruling does not automatically make every EPFO member eligible for a higher pension. Employees must satisfy the applicable eligibility criteria and other requirements, including those relating to contributions and documentation.
The judgment clarifies that restrictions in an employer’s PF trust rules alone cannot be used to deny an otherwise eligible employee the statutory higher-pension option. The ruling therefore offers relief to the petitioners while reinforcing the distinction between PF trust rules and pension eligibility under the EPS, 1995.
MCA Grants Major Relief to Companies – But LLPs Remain Outside the Extension!
The Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA), vide General Circular No. 05/2026 dated 24 October 2026, has announced significant relief for companies regarding the filing of financial statements and annual returns for FY 2025-26.
Revised Filing Deadlines for Companies
31 December 2026 – Financial Statements
AOC-4 CFS NBFC (Ind AS)
31 January 2027 – Annual Returns
MGT-7
MGT-7A
Key Benefit: Companies can submit the specified forms within these extended timelines without payment of additional filing fees. Normal statutory filing fees remain applicable.
! IMPORTANT: NO RELIEF FOR LLPS!
The above relaxation applies to companies and does not extend the statutory filing deadlines prescribed under the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008.
17 LLP Filing Deadlines for FY 2025-26:
Form 11 – Annual Return: 30 May 2026 (already overdue if not filed)
Form 8 – Statement of Account & Solvency: 30 October 2026
Delayed LLP filings attract additional fees based on the period of delay and whether the entity qualifies as a Small LLP.
LLP Late Filing Fee Structure:
Beyond 360 days, further daily additional fees apply.
Other Important Clarifications:
The MCA relaxation does not extend the statutory timeline for holding Annual General Meetings (AGMs).
Filing after the respective extended deadlines will attract applicable additional fees.
LLPs should complete Form 8 filing by 30 October 2026 to avoid additional filing fees.
Professional Insight:
While the extension provides welcome compliance relief to companies, businesses and professionals must distinguish between the filing requirements applicable to companies and LLPs.
Timely statutory compliance is essential to avoid unnecessary financial penalties and regulatory complications.
Share this update with business owners, directors, designated partners, finance professionals and compliance teams.


₹1.64 lakh Foreign Tax Credit denied over late Form 67 filing. ITAT Bangalore comes to the taxpayer’s rescue.
An Indian taxpayer paid ₹1.79 lakh in US taxes on income of around ₹9 lakh and claimed ₹1.64 lakh as Foreign Tax Credit in India.
But there was a catch: Form 67 was filed late.
Here’s what happened.
The taxpayer had earned income in the USA and paid tax there. He also disclosed the foreign income in his Indian ITR and claimed credit u/s 90 read with the India USA DTAA.
However, CPC denied the credit during return processing because Form 67 was not filed within the prescribed timeline.
His subsequent appeal also failed.
What did ITAT Bangalore say?
The Tribunal held that merely filing Form 67 late should not automatically disentitle a taxpayer from claiming Foreign Tax Credit.
The taxpayer had disclosed the foreign income in India and furnished Form 67 along with supporting evidence of US taxes paid.
The issue was procedural compliance, not whether the foreign tax had actually been paid.
The legal principle
There is an important distinction between a substantive right and a procedural requirement.
Where foreign income is disclosed and tax is actually paid abroad, a procedural delay should not automatically defeat legitimate relief against double taxation.
The Tribunal relied on earlier judicial precedents and observed that the applicable rules did not expressly provide for automatic forfeiture of FTC due to late filing.
Did the taxpayer immediately get ₹1.64 lakh? Not yet.
ITAT Bangalore restored the matter to the Assessing Officer for fresh examination on merits.
The AO must verify the foreign tax credit claim and supporting documents before deciding the eligible amount.
The appeal was allowed for statistical purposes. The ruling protects the taxpayer’s right to have the claim examined, but does not guarantee the entire credit.
What should taxpayers do?
✅ Disclose foreign income correctly in the Indian ITR.
✅ Maintain evidence of foreign income and taxes paid.
✅ File Form 67 within the prescribed timeline.
✅ Reconcile the foreign tax credit claimed with supporting documents.
The ruling is a reminder that genuine tax relief should not be denied solely for a procedural lapse. But taxpayers should not treat judicial relief as a substitute for timely compliance.
Avoiding Income Tax Notices is always easier than dealing with them. However, if you receive a notice from the Income Tax Department (ITD), timely and correct action is critical. Learn more on how to handle the Notices such as Scrutiny, Discrepancy, Mistakes, Non-disclosure.

2.1. Notice under Section 142(1) – Inquiry before assessment:
Notice under Section 268(1) of IT Act 2025 (Section 142(1) of IT Act 1961) is usually served to call upon documents and details from the taxpayers.
2.2. Notice under Section 143(2) – Scrutiny Notice
2.3. Notice under Section 143(1) – Letter of Intimation
Three types of notices can be sent under section 143(1)
2.4. Notice under Section 148 – Income escaping assessment
2.5. Notice under Section 156 – Notice of Demand
2.6. Notice under Section 139(9) – Defective Return
2.7. Notice under Section 245 – Set off of refunds against tax remaining payable
Follow the below steps to submit a response to the defective notice issued u/s 139(9)
CA Inter Result is announced.
Congratulations to everyone who passed

Rankholders of CA Intermediate September 2026 Attempt

Certain service charges for your Savings Account are being revised effective Dec 01, 2026. The revised charges applicable for the Account are as follows:
Revision in service charges Associated with your Savings Account
| of Charge | Existing Charges | Revised Charges w.e.f. Dec 01, 2026 |
| Cash Transactions (Deposits and withdrawals at Branches and deposits in Cash Recycler Machines) | Number Limit – 3 complimentary transactions per month each for deposits & withdrawals. Thereafter, ₹150 per transaction.Value Limit – Complimentary up to ₹1 lakh per month each for deposits & withdrawals. Thereafter, ₹3.5 per ₹1,000 or ₹150, whichever is higher.If the threshold of both number and value limit is crossed for the same transaction, the higher of the charges mentioned above pertaining to number limit or value limit will apply. | Number Limit – 3 complimentary transactions per month each for deposits & withdrawals. Thereafter, ₹150 per transaction.Value Limit – Complimentary up to ₹1 lakh per month each for deposits & withdrawals. Thereafter, ₹4 per ₹1,000 or ₹150, whichever is higher.If the threshold of both number and value limit is crossed for the same transaction, the higher of the charges mentioned above pertaining to number limit or value limit will apply. |
| ECS Debit Returns | ₹500 per instance for financial reasons. (Maximum recovery will be applicable for 3 instances per month for the same mandate) | For financial reasons -1 st return: ₹5002 nd and 3 rd return: ₹550 each(Maximum recovery will be applicable for 3 instances per month for the same mandate) |
GST is applicable on all mentioned charges.
For more details visit official ICICI bank website
DRI busts well-organised gold smuggling syndicate at Mumbai Airport
2.317 kg of 24-carat gold bars seized under Customs Act
Valued at approx. Rs. 3.47 crore
5 persons arrested for concealing, removing, handling and delivering the smuggled gold
On 20.10.2026, acting on specific intelligence, DRI officers intercepted 2 passengers arriving from Dubai on an Emirates flight at Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj International Airport. Simultaneously, another team caught 2 persons in the airport parking area and recovered a purse containing gold bars.
Investigations revealed the role of an airport staff member who received the gold from the passengers and carried it outside the airport premises. DRI’s swift action traced and intercepted him at his residence.

Cyber scammers can misuse your WhatsApp account through fake QR codes, OTPs, and social engineering. Once they gain control, they may ask your contacts for money in the name of medical treatment or emergencies.
To stay safe, keep these in mind:
1. Do not scan unknown QR codes and avoid suspicious links.
2. Do not share OTP, verification codes, or 2-Step Verification PIN with anyone.
3. Keep 2-Step Verification enabled and regularly check Linked Devices.
4. Immediately log out from unknown devices.
5. Do not install unknown apps or Remote Access apps, and do not share your screen.
6. If someone asks for money, verify their identity via a phone call.
If you suspect your account has been hacked: Re-register WhatsApp with your number, log out from unknown devices, and alert your contacts.
Stay alert, stay safe.
The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has prescribed a new form for furnishing information to claim income-tax exemption on interest income and capital gains from government securities, according to a government notification.
The CBDT notified the Income-tax (Seventh Amendment) Rules, 2026, on October 19. The rules introduce Form 173A, which must be furnished to claim tax exemption under entries 13D and 13E of Schedule IV of the Income-tax Act, 2025. The exemptions cover interest income from government securities and capital gains arising from their sale, exchange or transfer. Entry 13D applies to foreign institutional investors (FIIs), while entry 13E covers the Bank for International Settlements (BIS). The exemptions are not available to ordinary investors.
The form requires taxpayers to furnish basic details, including their name, country of residence, address, Permanent Account Number (PAN), tax identification number in the country of residence, Securities and Exchange Board of India (Sebi) registration number as a foreign portfolio investor (FPI) or foreign institutional investor (FII), tax year, email address and contact number.
It also seeks transaction-level details of government securities, including their International Securities Identification Number (ISIN), type of security, tenor and value as of April 1. The categories of securities listed in the form include Treasury Bills, fixed-rate bonds, floating-rate bonds and State Development Loans (SDLs), along with other securities.
Taxpayers will also be required to report the value of securities purchased during the year, sale consideration of securities sold, total value of holdings as of March 31, gross interest received or accrued during the tax year and capital gains earned during the year.
The form includes a declaration certifying that the information furnished is true and consistent with the provisions of Schedule IV of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It is to be signed by the principal officer.
The notification specifies that the tax identification number and Sebi registration number details are optional for the Bank for International Settlements (BIS).
The Income-tax Rules, 2026, were originally notified on March 20, 2026, and have since been amended through subsequent notifications.
Property related transactions can sometimes be complicated. Recording the same in your income tax return is equally important. But what if the Income Tax Department sends you a notice for unexplained cash receipts, believing that you have received a part of the payment for property sale in cash.
In one such case, the tax department relied on WhatsApp messages and Excel spreadsheets to reach the conclusion that the property had been sold for an amount higher than the one disclosed. The assessee finally won the case in Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT), Delhi.
What the case is about
The dispute concerned a man and his wife, who jointly owned a property in Delhi before selling
The Income Tax Department alleged that the buyers had paid an additional amount in cash beyond the sale consideration documented in the registered conveyance deed.
The assessing officer calculated the total transaction value at around Rs 3.30 crore, whereas the
registered sale deed recorded a consideration of Rs 1.60 crore. The department regarded the
difference of Rs 1.70 crore as cash received by the sellers but not disclosed in the documents. The case arose from a search conducted in 2021, involving a group of companies. According to the tax department, an Excel workbook titled “BOSS -DEC 18 onwards”, handwritten diary entries and other seized material pointed to cash payments allegedly made to the man in connection with a property in Delhi, jointly owned by him and his wife.
The department alleged that Rs 1.70 crore had been paid in cash by the group owner in connection with the property transaction to the husband and wife. Its case included entries for Rs 1.55 crore and a further Rs 15 lakh. It also relied on handwritten records and WhatsApp conversations involving several people.
The Assessing Officer (AO) also drew on WhatsApp conversations that mentioned payments of Rs 50 lakh, Rs 50 lakh, Rs 20 lakh, Rs 5 lakh and Rs 30 lakh.
These amounts added up to Rs 1.55 crore.
The AO treated the alleged amount as undisclosed cash receipts and made an addition under Section 69A read with Section 115BBE of the Income Tax Act. The Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) subsequently sustained an addition of Rs 1,16,25,000 out of the Rs 1.70 crore assessed, giving part relief.
However the man appealed in ITAT.
Why did the taxpayer win relief?
The man’s representative disputed the reliance on the seized material and argued that he had not been given a proper opportunity to cross-examine the people whose statements and communications were used against him.
He also challenged the legality of the proceedings under Section 153C, including the recording of a consolidated satisfaction note covering seven assessment years.
The taxpayer further argued that the alleged cash consideration related to a property sold through a registered conveyance deed dated October 31, 2019, falling in assessment year 2020-21, rather than the assessment year under appeal, 2019-20.
The tribunal found that the WhatsApp conversations relied upon by the tax authorities largely contained monetary figures but did not clearly establish what the payments were for or the purpose behind them.
“The WhatsApp chats and seized documents merely referred to certain figures and alleged transactions but did not conclusively establish that the assessee had received unaccounted cash,” CA Avinash Kumar Rao, Partner at Mohindra & Associates told ET.
CA Suresh Surana said the assessing officer had also not adequately examined the people connected with the alleged payments. The taxpayer was not given a proper opportunity to cross-examine them.
The tribunal also noted that the Income Tax Department had not summoned a man despite relying substantially on his statement and documents recovered from him to support its allegations.The tribunal observed that if the department intended to rely on the chats and related material as evidence of cash consideration, “it was essential for the assessing officer to have examined these persons on oath and also give the assessee an opportunity to cross-examine these persons.”
It explained that WhatsApp messages and supporting documents needed to be properly tested rather than treated as conclusive proof. As the order put it, “the inferences drawn cannot be considered to be conclusively based on relevant and admissible evidence, but become more of suspicious circumstance” if the necessary examination and opportunity to challenge the evidence are missing.The Income Tax Department had also relied on a common satisfaction note covering seven assessment years.However, it had not identified relevant incriminating material for every assessment year included in the note.
Surana explains that the ITAT held that the department was required to demonstrate a clear link between the material seized during the search and the income relating to each individual assessment year before initiating proceedings under Section 153C.
On these grounds, the tribunal allowed both the quantum appeal and the consequential penalty appeal.
Its final direction was explicit: “The impugned assessment and penalty stands quashed.”
The order was pronounced on September 9, 2026.
It’s important to note that the decision turned on the evidentiary shortcomings and legal defects identified by the tribunal; it should not be read as a finding that the alleged cash payments definitely did not occur.
The decision reiterates a fundamental principle of tax law: even strong suspicion cannot take the place of conclusive evidence. The Income Tax Department can examine WhatsApp conversations, Excel spreadsheets and handwritten records, but simply finding such material does not automatically prove that a taxpayer earned undisclosed income.
CA Avinash Kumar Rao advises taxpayers facing allegations based on third-party statements or conversations to obtain copies of the material cited against them and assess its context and relevance. They should also ask for an opportunity to cross-examine the individuals concerned. Such requests are preferably made in writing while the assessment proceedings are underway.
The ruling also underlines that procedural safeguards prescribed under the Income-tax Act must be followed rather than treated as formal requirements that can be overlooked.
CBDT notification amends Rule 231 and replaces Form No. 161 with a revised application form for seeking a penalty waiver under Section 440(2) of the Income Tax Act 2025. The amended rules came into force on the date of publication (9 October) in the official gazette.
The revised form specifies the information taxpayers must provide about their assessment or reassessment orders, under-reported income, tax liabilities and payments when applying for a penalty waiver.
CBDT’s 8 October 2026 notification is relevant to taxpayers who have received an assessment or reassessment order. This involves underreported income or intending to seek a penalty waiver under Section 440(2), subject to the applicable statutory conditions.
The potentially affected groups include the following:
It must be noted that the notification does not introduce an automatic penalty waiver for all taxpayers. Eligibility depends on the applicable provisions of the Income Tax Act 2025.
The notification makes two principal amendments to the Income Tax Rules 2026.
Rule 231 has been amended by inserting the words “or waiver” after the word “imposition”. This expressly extends the wording of the rule to include the waiver of penalties.
The existing Form No. 161 has been replaced with a revised application form titled Application for seeking waiver of penalty under Section 440(2) of the Income Tax Act 2025.
This revised tax form sets out the information applicants must furnish to support their waiver applications. This includes providing details of the relevant assessment order and the amounts payable.
The revised form is divided into personal information, assessment and payment details, and verification.
Form 161 specifies address particulars, including the country or region, building or flat, street, postal code, locality, district and state.
The form distinguishes between under-reported income attributable to the specific categories of misreporting listed under Section 439(11) and under-reported income that does not result from misreporting.
It also requires details of payments made, including the bank branch code (BSR Code), deposit date, challan serial number and amount paid.
Some information may be pre-filled to the extent possible, according to the notes accompanying the form.
The revised Form No. 161 distinguishes between the tax and interest payable on assessed income and the additional income tax payable in lieu of the penalty.
| Component | Details |
| Tax and interest | Amount payable on assessed income, as indicated in the computation sheet accompanying the notice of demand |
| Tax on under-reported income | Amount calculated under Section 439(12), with separate entries for the categories identified in the form |
| Additional Income Tax | 100 per cent of the amount under Section 439(11)(a)–(f) and 120 per cent of the amount under Section 439(11)(g), as reflected in the form |
| Total amount payable | Tax and interest payable on assessed income plus the total additional income tax specified for the waiver application |
Form 161 identifies the total amount payable for the penalty waiver by reference to Section 440(1) of the Income Tax Act 2025.
The penalty-waiver procedure should not be interpreted as a waiver of the underlying tax and interest liabilities. The form accounts for these amounts separately. Taxpayers should verify the applicable statutory conditions and calculations before submitting an application.
The revised form requires applicants to declare that the information furnished is true to the best of their knowledge and belief.
Applicants must also declare that no appeal has been filed against the specified assessment or reassessment order and undertake not to file an appeal before the expiry of the period specified in Section 440(5).
The form must be signed by the applicant or the authorised person, as applicable.
These declarations make it important for taxpayers to review the implications of seeking a penalty waiver before submitting the application.
Taxpayers considering an application under Section 440(2) should take the following steps:
The notification prescribes the revised form and related amendments; the eligibility requirements and legal consequences must be determined from the Act and other applicable provisions.
CBDT’s 8 October 2026 notification revises the procedural framework for applying for an income tax penalty waiver by amending Rule 231 and replacing Form No. 161 under the Income Tax Rules 2026.
These changes are relevant to taxpayers seeking a waiver under Section 440(2) of the Income Tax Act 2025 and to tax professionals assisting them.
Taxpayers in India should distinguish this procedural amendment from a general waiver of penalties. Whether an application qualifies, what amount must be paid and which restrictions apply will depend on the relevant statutory provisions and the taxpayer’s circumstances.
Certain sections of press and media have brought out reports, which inter alia have comments/ views regarding the legislative developments in 2003 concerning the Government’s shareholding in IDBI. It is reiterted that during the disucssions of Union Budget, 2003 and the parliamentary debate on the IDBI (Repeal) Act, 2003, an amendment seeking to restrict the dilution of the Government’s stake was moved but was ultimately rejected and did not form part of the enacted legislation.
The matter was subsequently examined by the Delhi High Court in All India IDBI Officers’ Association v. Union of India & Others, decided on 17 December 2018. The Court, while dismissing the writ petition, adjudicated in paragraphs 41 and 42 as follows:
Paragraph 41:
“This Court is of the view that the statements made before the House almost 15 years earlier, in a debate relating to a legislative activity, would not preclude the Central Government from diluting its stake in IDBI Ltd. Indisputably, the legislation enacted by the Parliament after the debate did not contain the amendment that was sought to be introduced. The statements made before the House cannot substitute or override the statue so enacted by the Parliament. Surely, the Parliament was conscious of the import of not including the proviso as proposed. The principles of promissory estoppel are wholly inapplicable in the aforesaid context. It is not possible to accept that the statements made in Parliament amounted to a representation made to the employees and they had acted to their prejudice based on such representation. The statements made before the House were in the context of enacting a legislation (the IDBI Repeal Act, 2003), and the said Act has to be interpreted in conformity with the settled principles of statutory interpretation.”
Paragraph 42:
“There is no ambiguity in the language of the IDBI Repeal Act, 2003 and there is no scope to read any provision into the said enactment which proscribes the Government from reducing or divesting its stake in IDBI Ltd.”
The aforesaid judgment is significant as it specifically addresses the doctrine of promissory estoppel, which was relied upon in challenging the Government’s decision to dilute its shareholding. The doctrine could not be invoked to prevent the Government from reducing or divesting its stake in IDBI Ltd.
The Government’s policy towards the transformation and strategic disinvestment of IDBI Bank was reiterated in successive Union Budget Speeches in the Parliament:
Union Budget 2016–17 — Speech of the then Hon’ble Finance Minister, Shri Arun Jaitley (Paragraph 93) said:
“Our Public Sector Banks will have to be strong and competitive. The Bank Board Bureau will be operationalized during 2016-17 and a roadmap for consolidation of Public Sector Banks will be spelt out. The process of transformation of IDBI Bank has already started. Government will take it forward and also consider the option of reducing its stake to below 50%.”
Union Budget 2021–22 — Speech of the then Hon’ble Finance Minister, Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman (Paragraph 84) said:
“In spite of COVID-19, we have kept working towards strategic disinvestment. A number of transactions namely BPCL, Air India, Shipping Corporation of India, Container Corporation of India, IDBI Bank, BEML, Pawan Hans, Neelachal Ispat Nigam limited among others would be completed in 2021-22. Other than IDBI Bank, we propose to take up the privatization of two Public Sector Banks and one General Insurance company in the year 2021-22. This would require legislative amendments and I propose to introduce the amendments in this Session itself.”
The legislative history of the IDBI (Repeal) Act, 2003, the judicial pronouncement of the Hon’ble Delhi High Court and successive Union Budget Speeches collectively demonstrate the evolution of the Government’s policy towards the strategic disinvestment of IDBI Bank. The Judgment dated 17 December 2018 clarifies beyond doubt that the doctrine of promissory estoppel cannot be invoked on the basis of statements made during parliamentary debates to restrict the Government’s power to dilute its shareholding in the IDBI Bank Ltd.The Court further held that the enacted legislation contained no prohibition against reducing the Government’s stake in the IDBI Bank Ltd.
The GST Council, in its 57th meeting has recommended extending e-invoicing to domestic supplies received from an unregistered person where the tax is payable under reverse charge mechanism, as well as to the import of services, for taxpayers having aggregate annual turnover of Rs. 5 crore and above. Accordingly, the e-Invoicing system is being enhanced to facilitate the reporting of recipient generated self-invoices under the Reverse Charge Mechanism (RCM). Accordingly, two new supply types, namely RCMDOM (Reverse Charge Mechanism on Domestic) and RCMIMP (Reverse Charge Mechanism on Import of Services), are being introduced to enable reporting of self-invoices for specified domestic supplies received from unregistered persons under RCM and import of services from suppliers located outside India.
The new functionality would enable eligible registered taxpayers to generate Invoice Reference Numbers (IRNs) for such self-invoices in accordance with the applicable provisions of GST law.
1. Introduction of New Supply Types
The following two supply types are being incorporated into the existing e-Invoice framework:
| Supply Type | Description |
|---|---|
| RCMDOM | Recipient generated self-invoices for specified domestic supplies received from unregistered persons, where the registered recipient is liable to pay tax under RCM. |
| RCMIMP | Recipient generated self-invoices for import of services from suppliers located outside India, where the registered recipient is liable to pay tax under RCM. |
2. Applicability
The new functionality is intended for registered taxpayers having an Aggregate Annual Turnover (AATO) of ₹5 crore and above (i.e. the current eligibility threshold for e-Invoicing), subject to the relevant statutory provisions and notifications to be issued by the government in this regard. The scope, applicability and effective date of the requirement would be governed by the applicable notifications and provisions of GST law.
3. Reporting of Recipient Generated Self-Invoices
Under the existing B2B e-Invoice framework, invoices are ordinarily reported by registered suppliers. The proposed enhancement would extend the facility to eligible and active registered recipients for reporting self-invoices issued in respect of specified RCM transactions. For such transactions, taxpayers would be required to select the appropriate supply type code, RCMDOM or RCMIMP, while reporting the self-invoice through an authorised IRP. Upon successful submission and validation of the prescribed invoice particulars, an Invoice Reference Number (IRN) would be generated in accordance with the applicable e-Invoice specifications.
4. Implementation and Availability in Sandbox
The necessary system enhancements for incorporating the two new supply types, RCMDOM and RCMIMP, have been implemented in the sandbox environments of all six authorised Invoice Registration Portals (IRPs). Taxpayers, GST Suvidha Providers (GSPs), Application Service Providers (ASPs), ERPs and other integration partners may access the sandbox environments through the respective IRP portals listed below to undertake testing and prepare their systems for integration.
| IRP | Portal URL |
|---|---|
| NIC IRP-1 | https://einvoice1.gst.gov |
| NIC IRP-2 | https://einvoice2.gst.gov.in |
| Cygnet IRP-3 | https://einvoice3.gst.gov.in |
| Clear IRP-4 | https://einvoice4.gst.gov.in |
| EY IRP-5 | https://einvoice5.gst.gov.in |
| IRIS IRP-6 | https://einvoice6.gst.gov.in |
NIC e-Invoice API Developer Portal :https://einv-apisandbox.nic.in/
The implementation, applicable business validations and validation codes for these two supply types would be uniform across all six IRPs, in accordance with the technical specifications and release note issued by NIC IRP-1.The functionality is presently available for sandbox testing and integration. The date of production rollout and commencement of the associated reporting requirements would be communicated in due time.
5. Further Guidelines, Webinar and Preparatory Activities
NIC IRP-1 would issue a detailed release note covering the technical specifications, business validations, validation codes and other operational requirements relating to RCMDOM and RCMIMP. Taxpayers and integration partners are advised to refer to the release note for detailed implementation requirements.
GSTN along with IRPs would also organise a webinar to explain the new functionality and address relevant implementation aspects. The details of the webinar would be communicated separately.
Taxpayers, GSPs, ASPs, ERPs and other stakeholders are requested to sensitise their wider ecosystem partners about these changes and undertake the necessary system development, integration and testing activities to ensure readiness for implementation. Taxpayers are advised to regularly visit the official e-Invoice portal https://einvoice.gst.gov.in for further updates and announcements.
When Mr Sharma from Sikar, near Jaipur, did not file any income tax return, the Income Tax Department sent him a tax notice. In response to this tax notice, Sharma filed an ITR declaring Rs 12.9 lakh income for AY 2018-19. However, the Income Tax Assessing Officer (AO) believed that if he had not sent a tax notice, Sharma’s Rs 12.9 lakh income would have escaped the tax net. So the AO initiated tax penalty proceedings under Section 270A. According to the law, the AO could have levied up to 200% of the tax owed. The tax payable on Rs 12.9 lakh unreported income came to Rs 1.99 lakh. So the AO levied Rs 3.99 lakh penalty on Sharma (200%).
The Commissioner of Appeals (CIT A) confirmed this penalty. Sharma then hired Advocate Shafi Mohammad Chouhan and Advocate Sahil Shafi Chouhan to appeal to the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT) in Jaipur.
On September 23, 2026 Sharma won the case in ITAT Jaipur.
Why did Sharma win?
Pranshu G, Partner at Ashok Pranshu & Co, said to ET Wealth Online that Sharma succeeded because the Assessing Officer invoked the stringent 200% penalty for misreporting without identifying which specific clause of Section 270A(9) was allegedly violated. The ITAT held that neither the assessment order nor the penalty notice recorded this essential satisfaction, leaving Sharma unaware of the precise charge he had to defend.
Thus ITAT Jaipur following the Rajasthan High Court case in G.R. Infraprojects, treated the proceedings as vitiated and quashed the penalty against Sharma.
Importantly, the ITAT Jaipur quashed the proceedings; it did not remand the matter for issuing a fresh notice. In my view, the Department cannot ordinarily cure this foundational defect simply by starting afresh now. Any fresh action would additionally have to satisfy the statutory limitation requirements and cannot be assumed to revive merely because the original notice was defective.
When is penalty under Section 270A imposed?
Pranshu says that Section 270A creates an important distinction between under-reporting and the more serious category of misreporting. Ordinarily, where income is under-reported, the penalty is 50% of the tax payable on such under-reported income. The enhanced 200% penalty applies only where the under-reporting results from one of the specified forms of misreporting under Section 270A(9), such as suppression or misrepresentation of facts, unrecorded investments or receipts, false book entries, expenditure unsupported by evidence, or failure to report specified transactions.
Therefore, a 200% penalty is not automatic merely because additional income is detected or offered.
Pranshu says: “The Assessing Officer must establish misreporting and clearly identify the specific statutory limb invoked. This distinction is significant because Section 270A also excludes certain bona fide explanations and specified estimation-related situations from under-reported income.”
ITAT Jaipur discussion
Income Tax Department made a technical mistake
ITAT Jaipur said that when they reviewed the tax penalty notice sent to Sharma, it was apparent that it was not recorded under which part of Section 270A(9), Sharma was going to be charged/penalised.
ITAT Jaipur said: “Similarly, when we see the assessment order, again proper satisfaction has not been recorded by the Assessing Officer as to under which part of Section 270A(9), the Act stood violated.”
ITAT Jaipur discussion
Income Tax Department made a technical mistake
ITAT Jaipur said that when they reviewed the tax penalty notice sent to Sharma, it was apparent that it was not recorded under which part of Section 270A(9), Sharma was going to be charged/penalised.
ITAT Jaipur said: “Similarly, when we see the assessment order, again proper satisfaction has not been recorded by the Assessing Officer as to under which part of Section 270A(9), the Act stood violated.”
ITAT Jaipur said that it is a settled principle of law that when an assessee has not been informed under which the provisions of the law he is going to be charged or penalised, the subsequent penalty proceedings get vitiated.
ITAT Jaipur cited the case of the Hon’ble High Court of Rajasthan at Jodhpur in case of G.R. Infraprojects Limited vs. ACIT, D.B Civil Writ Petition No. 5594/2023 vide order dated 02.01.2024, where the court decided the identical issue by holding that when the Assessing Officer has failed to specify which part of the sub-Section (9) of Section 270A is attracted in the case of the petitioner-company, the specific initiation is nonest (incorrect).
ITAT Jaipur also cited a Coordinate Bench of ITAT Delhi’s decision which has also decided an identical issue in the case cited as Greenwoods Govt. Officers Welfare Society vs. DCIT 160 taxmann.com 105 (2024) (ITAT Delhi) by deleting the penalty on the grounds that when limb has not been specified, the penalty is not sustainable.
Similarly, Hon’ble Delhi High Court in case of GE Capital US Holding INC (2024) 163 taxmann.com 146 (Delhi) also held that when the show-cause notice does not specify the limb under which assessee is being charged/penalized, the order is liable to be quashed.
Sharma wins tax penalty case in ITAT Jaipur
ITAT Jaipur ruled that they are of the view that the AO failed to record the satisfaction while framing assessment as to under which of the limbs, Sharma was going to be penalised and the AO further failed to specify in the notice issued under Section 274 read with Section 270A, as to under which part of proceedings under Section 270A(9), which vitiated the entire penalty proceedings. Hence, the penalty levied by the AO and confirmed by the CIT(A) was not sustainable, and hence quashed.
GST ADVISORY BREAKING: Introduction of e-Invoicing Facility for Recipient Generated Self Invoices under Reverse Charge Mechanism for Domestic Supplies from Unregistered Persons (RCMDOM) and Import of Services.
E-invoicing for RCM transactions? Seriously, why? Under RCM, the recipient already generates a self-invoice wherever required and pays the applicable GST in cash!
Now, we are adding another layer of compliance by requiring IRNs for recipient-generated invoices.
What exactly does this achieve? Better compliance, or just more compliance?
GST needs simplification, not endless layers of reporting and technical formalities…


Government Approves Strategic Restructuring of IDBI Bank Ltd
IDBI Bank Ltd. is a scheduled commercial bank regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). Due to its poor financial health, the Bank required repeated infusion of capital, initially provided by the Government of India and later by the LIC. On 5th May, 2017, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) put the IDBI Bank under the Prompt Corrective Action Framework and imposed several restrictions in view of its non-performing assets and losses incurred by the Bank. After considering the improvement in the Bank’s financial health, the RBI later, vide its letter dated 10th March, 2021, lifted the restrictions imposed on the IDBI Bank subject to certain conditions and continuous monitoring.
It was against this backdrop that the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) approved strategic restructuring of the IDBI Bank Ltd., and in compliance thereof, it was decided that an aggregate 60.72% of the equity stake in the IDBI Bank Ltd be sold to a Strategic Buyer, of which, the GoI share would be 30.48% and the LIC share would be 30.24%, leaving a residual shareholding of 15% with the GoI and 19% with the LIC.
The decision of the CCEA was implemented through a two-stage, competitive bidding process supported by a multi-layered, collective decision-making mechanism consisting of the Inter-Ministerial Group (IMG), the Core Group of Secretaries on Disinvestment (CGD) and the Alternative Mechanism (AM) consisting of an empowered Group of Cabinet Ministers.
The Preliminary Information Memorandum (PIM) inviting Expression of Interest (EoI) from all interested parties was issued on 07.10.2022. Only the parties found ‘Fit and Proper’ by the RBI and granted security clearance by the MHA could participate in the bidding stage, for which a Request for Proposal was issued for inviting technical and financial bids from the Qualified Interested Parties (QIPs). Of the five parties who initially submitted their expression of interest, four parties qualified as per the eligibility criteria and disqualification conditions prescribed therein, of which, two finally submitted their techno-financial bids and became Qualified Bidders (QBs) for this Transaction.
After comprehensive evaluation by the CGD and after considering the recommendations of the Alternative Mechanism, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) in its meeting held on 14/10/2026 approved M/s 10955230 Canada Inc. (parent entity M/s Fairfax Financial Holdings Ltd.) as the Strategic Buyer for this Transaction for a purchase consideration of Rs.52,878.0806181 Crores (in words Rupees Fifty-Two Thousand Eight Hundred Seventy-Eight Crore Eight Lakh Six Thousand and One Hundred Eighty-One only) for the acquisition of 60.72% stake in the IDBI Bank Ltd, comprising 30.48% equity shareholding held by the Gol and 30.24% equity shareholding held by the LIC.
In such transactions, there is no a-priori benchmark for bidding. The bidders do their own valuation and submit their bids in sealed envelopes in a confidential manner. Independent agencies are hired to do a fair valuation of the enterprise contemporaneously, which is then used as a comparator to assess the reasonableness of the bids submitted.
Under this transaction, the initial bids were invited in the financial year 2025-26. For comparison, a reserve price of Rs.94.42 per share was fixed at that time, which was directly and indirectly influenced by the impacted market price. The unimpacted counter-factual was not visible at that time, except that the unimpacted pre-EoI price of the IDBI stock was Rs.42.40 per share on the last trading day before the issue of the PIM/EoI on 07.10.2022. In contrast, the impacted price was Rs.108.12 per share on the last trading day before the invitation of initial bids on 08.01.2026. The initial bids fell short of the reserve price arrived at that time and were not approved. When it became known that the initial bids have not succeeded, the impacted stock market price itself corrected, and fell significantly below the discovered bid price of Rs.75 per share.
Subsequently, in exercise of the powers delegated and conferred upon the collective decision-making mechanism, and to enhance the value of the transaction as far as possible, sealed bids reflecting their best offers were invited from the qualified bidders in the financial year 2026-27. The stock price of the IDBI Stock was Rs.70.38 per share on the trading day last before the invitation of best offer bids on 18.05.2026.
The stock market price of the narrowly traded IDBI stock continued to be volatile and fluctuated both above and below the bid discovered price with a high-low range of Rs.118.38 to Rs.61.01 per share over the valuation period. The stock market price was consequently disregarded, as it tended to misalign valuation with the intrinsic value of the enterprise. Instead, Relative Valuation by the Market Multiple Method, which overcomes this problem, was used to determine the fair market value of the enterprise on the basis of 31st March, 2026 closing accounts of all public sector banks. Additionally, the Asset Valuation Method, which considers both tangible and intangible assets, including land and properties along with the liabilities, was used to determine the fair net asset value of the enterprise as per the 31st March, 2026 audited accounts of the IDBI Bank Ltd.
Accordingly, the fair valuation of the enterprise was carried out by two professional valuation agencies using two independent methodologies as explained above. The average of these fair valuations was Rs.75.99 per share, which served as the benchmark price for the evaluation of the qualified bids. Since the winning best offer bid of Rs.81 per share was above the benchmark price, as well as fair value estimates of both the independent valuation agencies, it was adjudged to be reasonable and approved.
The successful bidder will be required to present its credentials to the Reserve Bank of India in accordance with the Fit and Proper Assessment conducted at the EoI stage and submit its roadmap for the compliance of regulatory conditions prescribed therein. Once completed, this will be the largest FDI in the financial sector of our economy so far.
The CCEA has also delegated powers to the Alternative Mechanism to undertake minority stake sales of the GoI residual shareholding (15% of the total shareholding of the IDBI Bank Ltd.) through the open market in accordance with the standard operating procedure. The LIC will be free to manage its residual shareholding in accordance with its internal procedures while ensuring compliance with the directions of its regulators.
(FAQs)
Q1. Who is the Strategic Buyer for the IDBI Bank Ltd.?
Answer: M/s 10955230 Canada Inc. (parent entity M/s Fairfax Financial Holdings Ltd.) has been approved as the Strategic Buyer for the IDBI Bank Ltd.
Q2. What is the size of this Transaction?
Answer: The purchase consideration for this transaction is Rs.52,878.0806181 Crores (in words Rupees Fifty-Two Thousand Eight Hundred Seventy-Eight Crore Eight Lakh Six Thousand and One Hundred Eighty-One only).
Q3. How will it be split between the Government of India (GoI) and the Life Insurance corporation of India (LIC)?
Answer: 60.72% stake out of the total shareholding of the IDBI Bank Ltd is being sold through this transaction, comprising 30.48% shareholding held by the Gol and 30.24% shareholding held by the LIC. The proceeds will be divided in the same proportion.
Q4. How many entities were involved in the bidding process?
Answer: Of the five parties who initially submitted their Expression of interest, four parties qualified as per the eligibility criteria and disqualification conditions prescribed in the Preliminary Information Memorandum (PIM), of which, two finally submitted their techno- financial bids and became Qualified Bidders (QBs) for this transaction.
Q5. What methodologies were used for the valuation of IDBI Bank Ltd.?
Answer: The fair value of the enterprise was determined using two alternate methodologies, namely the Market Multiple Method and the Asset Valuation Method.
Q6. Who carried out the valuation exercise?
Answer: The valuation of enterprise was carried out by two independent, professional valuation agencies appointed for the purpose. Their names cannot be disclosed due to confidential guarantees enshrined in the process.
Q7. What role did the stock market price play in the valuation of the IDBI Bank?
Answer: The volatile stock market price of the narrowly traded IDBI stock fluctuated both above and below the bid offer price (low high range of Rs.61.01 to Rs.118.38 over the valuation period). It was disregarded, as it tended to misalign the valuation with the intrinsic value of the enterprise, and instead, relative valuation by the market multiple method, which overcomes this problem, was used to determine the fair market value of the enterprise based on the 31st March, 2026 closing accounts for all public sector banks.
Q8. How have the assets, including land and properties, been valued for the IDBI Bank?
Answers: The Asset Valuation Method, which considered both tangible and intangible assets, including land and properties, along with the liabilities, was used to determine the fair net asset value of the enterprise as per the 31st March, 2026 audited accounts of the IDBI Bank.
Q9. What was the benchmark price used for this transaction?
Answer: The average of the two independent valuations (Rs.75.99 per share) served as the benchmark price for the evaluation of the qualified bids. The winning bid was found to be higher than the benchmark price as well as the fair value estimates of both the independent valuation agencies.
Q10. How was the benchmark price determined?
Answer: The benchmark price was the average of the fair market value determined by the Market Multiple Method and the fair net asset value determined by the Asset Valuation Method.
Q11. What is the further course of action?
Answer: The Successful Bidder would now present its credentials to the RBI in accordance with the ‘Fit & Proper’ assessment conducted at the EoI stage and submit a roadmap for the compliance of regulatory conditions prescribed therein.
Q12. What is the residual equity stake left with the GoI and the LIC?
Answer: GoI will retain 15% residual equity stake while the LIC will retain 19% equity stake. Both of them will withdraw their nominees from the Board and become public shareholders.
Q13. How will the GoI and LIC dissolve their residual shareholding in the IDBI Bank?
Answer: The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has delegated powers to the Alternative Mechanism to undertake minority stake sales of the residual GoI shareholding through the open market in accordance with the standard operating procedure. The LIC will be free to manage its residual shareholding in accordance with its internal procedures while ensuring compliance with the direction of its regulators.
Q14. What impact will it have on the banking sector and the economy at large?
Answer: It will have a significantly positive effect on the banking and financial sector of our economy. The IDBI Bank, post-privatization, would be able to generate funds without any dependence on government assistance as has been the experience in the past. It is expected that the strategic buyer will infuse private capital, bring-in new technology and better management practices, which will help enhance its business potential and make it more competitive for both credit and deposit growth.
Q15. What impact will it have on India’s external sector at the time of geo-political strain?
Answer: It will be the largest FDI in the financial sector of our economy so far, and will help generate a positive sentiment for economic reforms, while improving the investment climate in the country at large.